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Paul: the false doctrine of two loves - agapao and phileo
Shlama Akhay,

It just occurred to me how important this certain issue is. Basically, it can be a very strong argument for Aramaic Primacy OR for Greek Primacy (a make or break case? - well maybe a bit of an exaggeration...)

Since phileo and agapao are synonyms, and since these words occur so OFTEN in the New Testament, we would expect for it to be a split word (one verse having phileo in one Greek mss and agapao in another Greek mss) - and the more verses have this variant, the stronger the split word and the strnger the case for Aramaic primacy.


If there is not one verse where this variant exists, we are in trouble. Then it would be a strong argument for Greek primacy. I hope no Zorbans are reading this <!-- sBig Grin --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/happy.gif" alt="Big Grin" title="Happy" /><!-- sBig Grin -->

So if anyone knows a variant on this, please speak up. I shall try to find as many as I can (my current total is zero) and if anyone has some time to help, that is much appreciated. The links provided by Akhan Larry will no doubt be of invaluable help.

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. - by drmlanc - 09-15-2003, 09:40 AM

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