03-11-2015, 12:37 AM
Hi,
I'm extremely new to this forum, but have been following the subject for a couple years now. I'm completely an amateur, and fascinated by the simplicity of the idea of Aramaic Primacy.
My question: It seems that the Aramaic 'namusa' (the Law) is considered to be a loan word from the Greek, but could it be the other way around? Could the 'musa' part be derived from Moses? Please direct me to the proper thread if this has already been discussed. Thanks!
cheers,
John Warren
I'm extremely new to this forum, but have been following the subject for a couple years now. I'm completely an amateur, and fascinated by the simplicity of the idea of Aramaic Primacy.
My question: It seems that the Aramaic 'namusa' (the Law) is considered to be a loan word from the Greek, but could it be the other way around? Could the 'musa' part be derived from Moses? Please direct me to the proper thread if this has already been discussed. Thanks!
cheers,
John Warren