10-10-2014, 07:13 AM
Shlama Shamasha Paul,
Why does in Acts 1:19 of Peshitta text have explanation of Khagel-Dema to Aramaic-speaking Palestine of 1st century, as it is written in Greek source/Bible? or it is not for Aramaic-speaking Palestine of 1st century (at this case)?
![[Image: kis1_19.png]](https://archive.org/download/kis1_19/kis1_19.png)
Source: wwww.peshitta.org
Tawdee.
Rudolf <!-- s
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Why does in Acts 1:19 of Peshitta text have explanation of Khagel-Dema to Aramaic-speaking Palestine of 1st century, as it is written in Greek source/Bible? or it is not for Aramaic-speaking Palestine of 1st century (at this case)?
Source: wwww.peshitta.org
Tawdee.
Rudolf <!-- s
--><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="" title="Smile" /><!-- s -->