01-20-2014, 11:36 PM
enarxe Wrote:What does it mean "made him to be sin for us" and is it clear who is who in this sentence , grammatically and contextually ?
enarxe, the KJV apparently translates it that way, but I think they somehow got it reversed. I'm not sure if this makes it any clearer, but this is how I interpret the Peshitta as rendering it:
"Such he thus of a sinfulness not knowing he was, on account of you, the sinfulness made him; that by him, we are to become the charitableness of God."
Or as I would attempt to explain it; Yeshua was the sinless one. But our sins created the need for him, and by him, we become the beneficiaries of God's mercy.