Thread Rating:
  • 0 Vote(s) - 0 Average
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
A greek primacist question...
#14
ScorpioSniper2 Wrote:I think the strongest evidences for Aramaic primacy are poetry & wordplay, as well as split words. These things cannot be accounted for when assuming a Greek original. Loan words are not very strong evidence. At the end of Stephen King's The Stand, some indigenous people are shown speaking Spanish. This does not prove that The Stand was written in Spanish.

Names for officials, places, ranks, monetary units, measurement, etc. are often turned into loan-words in the subjugated peoples language. If the Peshitta was an Aramaic original made in the Roman empire, we would expect loan-words like "Centurian", "Decapolis", "Evangeliou", "Legion", etc, in the text of the Aramaic. If they weren't there, that would be a problem for Aramaic primacy.

You cannot have a "pure" Aramaic text coming out of the Roman empire. You cannot have a "pure" Aramaic text coming out of America (you'll often see words like "poleesa" (police) and "interneet", etc.)

Loan-words betray the milieu of a text. The presence of them actually proves the Peshitta came from the Roman empire, not the Persian empire where the CoE was.

+Shamasha
Reply


Messages In This Thread
A greek primacist question... - by Thirdwoe - 12-08-2013, 09:20 PM
Re: A greek primacist question... - by Thirdwoe - 12-09-2013, 12:15 AM
Re: A greek primacist question... - by Thirdwoe - 12-09-2013, 02:16 AM
Re: A greek primacist question... - by enarxe - 12-09-2013, 02:31 AM
Re: A greek primacist question... - by enarxe - 12-09-2013, 03:29 AM
Re: A greek primacist question... - by Matthew - 12-09-2013, 05:17 AM
Re: A greek primacist question... - by Thirdwoe - 12-10-2013, 08:22 AM
Re: A greek primacist question... - by Paul Younan - 12-10-2013, 07:15 PM

Forum Jump:


Users browsing this thread: 1 Guest(s)