12-06-2013, 05:27 AM
Thirdwoe Wrote:http://www.cbsnews.com/news/syriac-doubl...tion-mark/
Yes, but the Cambridge scholar was about 1,000 years late in "discovering" it. <!-- s



Bar-Hebraeus (11th century) treated this topic in his letter on Aramaic Orthography: (see page 51)
http://books.google.com/books?id=S9YOAAA...re&f=false
The reason why it's not always found on every question, is because it's meant for a "chiding" type of question (also explained by Bar-Hebraeus) which explains why the Cambridge scholar seems to think it was associated with a modal change to the tone of the voice (chiding).
+Shamasha