11-24-2013, 08:06 PM
Shalam Konway
All these dialects belongs to "western Aramaic" (or what beginned to be the western Aramaic). It's logical that their dialetcs were mutually intelligible.
And Rabbi Gamaliel wrote lettrer to Galileans, Judeans and even Babilonians, so I think we can say that that it was more difficult with the Eastern one.
The "i" fell in the first Century because of the shift of the stress (on the first syllable). If the "i" is sometime written, it is beacause of the biblical aramaic. But is true that the Peshitta shares some features with galilean Aramaic.
Quote:Ten cities include cities from Israel, Jordan, and Syria. They all understood what Jesus was saying. That proves that Aramaic was mutually intelligible in first century AD.
All these dialects belongs to "western Aramaic" (or what beginned to be the western Aramaic). It's logical that their dialetcs were mutually intelligible.
And Rabbi Gamaliel wrote lettrer to Galileans, Judeans and even Babilonians, so I think we can say that that it was more difficult with the Eastern one.
Quote:Talitha Koum in Greek
The "i" fell in the first Century because of the shift of the stress (on the first syllable). If the "i" is sometime written, it is beacause of the biblical aramaic. But is true that the Peshitta shares some features with galilean Aramaic.