1 Corinthians 11

[aineo]

Lately I have been intrigued with 1 Corinthians 11:10, particularly the phrase "because of the angels", and I have yet to gain a good feeling that I understand what this verse is saying. However, I came across a site the other day, <!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://williamwelty.com/docs_rethinking_the_veil.htm">http://williamwelty.com/docs_rethinking_the_veil.htm</a><!-- m -->, that presents a totally different opinion on this verse (and the passage). The author's opinion is that some of the interrogative statements in this passage should have been declarative statements. An example is verse 13 - the author states, "Our clue to understanding Paul's intention in I Corinthians 2:11-16 is found in verse thirteen. The interrogative sense of the question ?Is it proper for a woman to pray to God uncovered?? should instead be rendered as the declarative ?It is proper for a woman to pray to God with loosened hair.?". Keeping in mind, he is approaching this from a Greek perspective, and I am convinced that the NT was written in Aramaic, which is why I am posing this question here. From an Aramaic perspective, does this man's argument make any sense? Despite my belief in Aramaic primacy, I am but an infant in my ability to understand Aramaic writing, so I am hoping one of the experts here will look at this website and this passage of scripture and share their thoughts on it.

Thanks in advance for any help.

Steve