11-17-2013, 04:17 AM
Many people say that in the Greek Text of Mark, the grammar differs greatly from the Greek grammar of the rest of the Gospel. This seems to be the case between the Greek grammar of Paul's writings in the Greek New Testament and in the Greek version of Hebrews. Someone on here once said that they were shocked at how similar the grammar was between the Pauline Epistles and Hebrews in the Peshitta text. Could the problem of the supposed "non-Markian" grammar be solved by the Aramaic Peshitta's rendition of Mark 16:9-20?