09-16-2013, 05:23 AM
Thirdwoe Wrote:I don't know, he seems to think that "Maran" can never be rightly translated into English as "Master" or "Our Master", just "Lord" or "Our Lord".
Anyone know any linguistic reason to support that idea?
Either way seems good to me, and it seems to me that they mean the same thing in English too.
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The Greek does not but this is not a measure for us.
Eg: KJV has in Eph 6:8 'your master' while the source has 'kurios'.
In 2 tim 2:21 we have a 'master' translated from 'despotes' while the Aramaic has 'mareh' (his master).
If you take the Greek-Aramaic translation table (which I am working on) I see some translation errors. If acedemics take this as 'inspired work' I can imagine they try to figure out some 'grammatical rules' which in fact don't work now as well.
The samples above, show that neither the Greek or Aramaic (regardles of Greek or Aramaic primacist) are consistent.
The -only- rule I can think of, is this: If it is human, translate 'master' if it is about Jesus, translate 'Lord'. But figure, why does the Peshitta -not- make this distinction and why can't a reader understand when lord is about a human and Lord is about God?