07-16-2013, 03:05 PM
I understand the Greek manuscripts are best translated "...the Word was God" yet I notice the Aramaic renders the verse as "God was the Word". Can someone who knows both Greek and Aramaic shed some light on this? I think the question is important..there is a big difference between me saying "God is light" (as John does in 1John 1:5) and me saying "Light is God". I suspect the Aramaic is a closer and more accurate rendition of what John intended.
PS: In my interlinear Greek text it also says "...God was the Word" yet all the English translations I can locate reverse the order, I assume because the Greek grammar requires this.
PS: In my interlinear Greek text it also says "...God was the Word" yet all the English translations I can locate reverse the order, I assume because the Greek grammar requires this.