05-06-2013, 04:41 PM
I would really like to hammer this down as to what is intended (the real definition on the word for "Hebrew") when a given New Testament writer mentions the "Hebrew" language as in Acts 22:2.
Is the writer , when saying something like, "which in the HEBREW is translated . . ." - like the apostle John did in his gospel about 5 times, referring to COMMON language of Aramaic spoken by Jews or does the writer mean the actual Hebrew language , the language of the temple and the scrolls?? (See John 1:41, John 1:42, John 5:2, John 19:13 and John 19:17)
Acts 22:2 says, "And when they heard that he spake in the Hebrew tongue to them, they kept the more silence: . . ." (King James Version).
Here, let us keep in mind that at this point (in Acts 22:2) Paul, having just been arrested was just in the temple with some Gentiles. The Jews go ahold of him and arrested him and he is currently under Roman Custody - in JERUSALEM. I wish to hammer this down and asking for help. But, in my opinion, I think that when the authors of the New Testament say "Hebrew", as the example just stated above, (and pretty much ALL the references in John) - the author means just that - HEBREW and NOT the sister language of HEBREW; of which the sister language of Hebrew is Aramaic. Again, the authors, as Luke here in Acts 22:2 really means Hebrew - the mother tongue of the Jews BEFORE they were carried away into capitivity into regions of Assyria and Babylon. I say this because the context of these verses seems to strongly suggest this and NOT ONE author ever uses the word Aramaic. So, am I on the right course here?
Mike Karoules
Is the writer , when saying something like, "which in the HEBREW is translated . . ." - like the apostle John did in his gospel about 5 times, referring to COMMON language of Aramaic spoken by Jews or does the writer mean the actual Hebrew language , the language of the temple and the scrolls?? (See John 1:41, John 1:42, John 5:2, John 19:13 and John 19:17)
Acts 22:2 says, "And when they heard that he spake in the Hebrew tongue to them, they kept the more silence: . . ." (King James Version).
Here, let us keep in mind that at this point (in Acts 22:2) Paul, having just been arrested was just in the temple with some Gentiles. The Jews go ahold of him and arrested him and he is currently under Roman Custody - in JERUSALEM. I wish to hammer this down and asking for help. But, in my opinion, I think that when the authors of the New Testament say "Hebrew", as the example just stated above, (and pretty much ALL the references in John) - the author means just that - HEBREW and NOT the sister language of HEBREW; of which the sister language of Hebrew is Aramaic. Again, the authors, as Luke here in Acts 22:2 really means Hebrew - the mother tongue of the Jews BEFORE they were carried away into capitivity into regions of Assyria and Babylon. I say this because the context of these verses seems to strongly suggest this and NOT ONE author ever uses the word Aramaic. So, am I on the right course here?
Mike Karoules