04-18-2013, 09:36 PM
ScorpioSnyper,
About your comments that the New Testament Greek does NOT bear the marks of translation may not be due to word plays; puns or polysemy examples. IOW, the general view of Philology should play a role here. By that I mean how structure of sentance flows; how good or how smooth is the Greek in connecting phrases. Let me just say this: (this is just my opinion) ; let us take the example of the book of Hebrews. (I know alot gets said against the idea when one mentions scholars and how the scholars how almost universally [about 96 or 97%] have sided with Greek primacy; but there is something to be taken into consideration when the epistle of Hebrews is known to be of the highest form of Greek of all the New Testament letters. The author of Hebrews knew his Greek very well and to say that it bears the mark of translation, well, if you say that than he had to be a very exceptional translator indeed. There is almost 0% consenses that the epistle of Hebrews bears mark of a translation from what I read. But like I said, members on this forum sort of are get on the defensive when you mention scholarship agreement here and I can understand why. But when the agreement of scholars is over 95% something needs to be taken into account here, that is all. And I guess I am piggybacking on some of the work of scholars here, I admit this. I do not know Aramaic and I know very little Greek although I can read the Greek words. But the natural flow and rich expressiveness of the book of Hebrews [and this is to the Hebrews, now] in the Greek language bears the mark of originality. all I am saying is this has to be considered and put on the table. And this is not to mention the old Testament quotes of the author of Hebrews. Mike
About your comments that the New Testament Greek does NOT bear the marks of translation may not be due to word plays; puns or polysemy examples. IOW, the general view of Philology should play a role here. By that I mean how structure of sentance flows; how good or how smooth is the Greek in connecting phrases. Let me just say this: (this is just my opinion) ; let us take the example of the book of Hebrews. (I know alot gets said against the idea when one mentions scholars and how the scholars how almost universally [about 96 or 97%] have sided with Greek primacy; but there is something to be taken into consideration when the epistle of Hebrews is known to be of the highest form of Greek of all the New Testament letters. The author of Hebrews knew his Greek very well and to say that it bears the mark of translation, well, if you say that than he had to be a very exceptional translator indeed. There is almost 0% consenses that the epistle of Hebrews bears mark of a translation from what I read. But like I said, members on this forum sort of are get on the defensive when you mention scholarship agreement here and I can understand why. But when the agreement of scholars is over 95% something needs to be taken into account here, that is all. And I guess I am piggybacking on some of the work of scholars here, I admit this. I do not know Aramaic and I know very little Greek although I can read the Greek words. But the natural flow and rich expressiveness of the book of Hebrews [and this is to the Hebrews, now] in the Greek language bears the mark of originality. all I am saying is this has to be considered and put on the table. And this is not to mention the old Testament quotes of the author of Hebrews. Mike