Why does Hebrew and Greek appear in Pilatos' sign?

[distazo]

Interesting theory, Akhi Paul.

I'm kind of hung up on this, though. Would it make sense to transliterate (not translate) the same words into three different scripts? If a Greek speaker (for example) saw the sign and couldn't read the Aramaic version, wouldn't the Greek letters just be gibberish to him?

Hi B!

This was just an example which Paul gave to you, that the script in untrained eyes makes up the language!
Of course, the sign on the tablet above Yeshu was written in correct language, it was not transliterated.
To prove this point: In ancient Palmyra, they found also signs in 3 languages (Greek, Latin, 'Hebrew'/Aramaic). It was THE way, the Romans communicated with the people when they wrote public messages.
Palmyra is in Syria, as you know, and it was especially having an Aramaic speaking people, in those days; still, the signs were in 3 languages. It was just common Roman use in those areas.

Estrangelo, the script for the NT, developed in Edessa, did not exist in Jesus time. So, what Paul means, Jewish Aramaic was written using Hebrew Square script.
For a non Jew, it would just look like 'hebrew'
This is making a lot of sense to me!