03-31-2013, 04:25 AM
Shlama All,
I realized this question could be related to an existing thread but that one is quite old and I don't want it to get buried or overlooked. I noticed that Etheridge and Murdock render the second half of the verse in question as "three days [have passed] since these things occurred." Lamsa appears to disagree, stating "it is three days since..." Akhi Younan agrees with the former.
Regardless, all disagree with the Greek which states emphatically "today (semeron) is the third (tritos) day"
I don't know of any existing debate or dispute that the exchange happened on a Sunday, so let me explain my question. The greek translation certainly allows for the traditional interpretation of a Friday crucifixion; that is "today" (Sunday) is the third day, Saturday was the second and Friday was the first, that is, the day that it occurred.
Peshitta seems to point to Wednesday or possible Thursday depending if Lamsa has a more accurate interpretation or Murdock et al. When you say "three days have passed", that seems like it should include Saturday, Friday and Thursday, as the current day (Sunday) has not passed yet as we are speaking, and the day that the events occurred couldn't grammatically be considered to have passed "since" itself. Of course if Lamsa is rendering the text properly "it is" or has been "three days since", most grammatically similar to english "three days ago" you can just count backwards to three from Sunday -- Saturday, Friday, Thursday -- and determine that the events in question happened on Thursday.
All that to get to my question: can someone walk me through the grammar of the phrase? (Transliterated) Telata yawmin ha men dehalen kulhen heway
Especially Akhi Paul, if you could walk me through why you chose to render it the way you did.
I don't want any other parts of the "what day of the week was Yeshua crucified" debate to creep in here, I'm just interested in the grammar. And moderators, if this would fit better in a different forum you won't hurt my feelings if you move it. I can see it being classified as a mistranslation from aramaic to greek, or a contradiction in the greek cleared up by aramaic. But not 100 percent sure it exactly fits either of those. Hence, general.
Shlama,
Brian
I realized this question could be related to an existing thread but that one is quite old and I don't want it to get buried or overlooked. I noticed that Etheridge and Murdock render the second half of the verse in question as "three days [have passed] since these things occurred." Lamsa appears to disagree, stating "it is three days since..." Akhi Younan agrees with the former.
Regardless, all disagree with the Greek which states emphatically "today (semeron) is the third (tritos) day"
I don't know of any existing debate or dispute that the exchange happened on a Sunday, so let me explain my question. The greek translation certainly allows for the traditional interpretation of a Friday crucifixion; that is "today" (Sunday) is the third day, Saturday was the second and Friday was the first, that is, the day that it occurred.
Peshitta seems to point to Wednesday or possible Thursday depending if Lamsa has a more accurate interpretation or Murdock et al. When you say "three days have passed", that seems like it should include Saturday, Friday and Thursday, as the current day (Sunday) has not passed yet as we are speaking, and the day that the events occurred couldn't grammatically be considered to have passed "since" itself. Of course if Lamsa is rendering the text properly "it is" or has been "three days since", most grammatically similar to english "three days ago" you can just count backwards to three from Sunday -- Saturday, Friday, Thursday -- and determine that the events in question happened on Thursday.
All that to get to my question: can someone walk me through the grammar of the phrase? (Transliterated) Telata yawmin ha men dehalen kulhen heway
Especially Akhi Paul, if you could walk me through why you chose to render it the way you did.
I don't want any other parts of the "what day of the week was Yeshua crucified" debate to creep in here, I'm just interested in the grammar. And moderators, if this would fit better in a different forum you won't hurt my feelings if you move it. I can see it being classified as a mistranslation from aramaic to greek, or a contradiction in the greek cleared up by aramaic. But not 100 percent sure it exactly fits either of those. Hence, general.
Shlama,
Brian