09-11-2012, 06:59 AM
:
Iv'e done some research on this verse and found this to be the case, as to the various ancient witnesses to the verse of John 1:18.
The Diatessaron, Tatian's Gospel Harmony produced around 170 A.D. and said by some to have been composed from copies of The Aramaic New Testament, has this reading for John 1:18
"No man hath seen God at any time; the only Son, God, which is in the bosom of his Father, he hath told of him."
But, if it were a very old Greek copy that he used...it would explain why later there were two versions of the same verse in the Greek copies...some reading "the only Son" and some "the only God". Or perhaps there were variants even at that time, and he harmonized the variants into the one verse. Or maybe his text should be translated "the only Son of God, as is seen quoted by Ireneaus below, about 10 years later"
About 180 A.D. St. Ireneaus quoted this verse of John 1:18, which had this reading in his copy of the New Testament.
"For ?no man,? he says, ?hath seen God at any time,? unless ?the only-begotten Son of God, which is in the bosom of the Father, He hath declared [Him].? -Against Heresies: Book 3, Chap 11 section 6
And about 10 years later around 190 A.D. Clement of Alexandria quoted the same verse of John 1:18, which had this reading in his copy of the New Testament.
"And John the apostle says: ?No man hath seen God at any time. The only-begotten God, who is in the bosom of the Father, He hath declared Him,? -The Stromata: book 5, Chap 12
and about 40 years later about 230, Origen quoted from the same verse of John 1:18, which had this reading in his copy of the New Testament.
?No man hath seen God at any time; the only-begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, He hath declared Him.? -Against Celsus: book 2 Chap 71
Shlama,
Chuck
Iv'e done some research on this verse and found this to be the case, as to the various ancient witnesses to the verse of John 1:18.
The Diatessaron, Tatian's Gospel Harmony produced around 170 A.D. and said by some to have been composed from copies of The Aramaic New Testament, has this reading for John 1:18
"No man hath seen God at any time; the only Son, God, which is in the bosom of his Father, he hath told of him."
But, if it were a very old Greek copy that he used...it would explain why later there were two versions of the same verse in the Greek copies...some reading "the only Son" and some "the only God". Or perhaps there were variants even at that time, and he harmonized the variants into the one verse. Or maybe his text should be translated "the only Son of God, as is seen quoted by Ireneaus below, about 10 years later"
About 180 A.D. St. Ireneaus quoted this verse of John 1:18, which had this reading in his copy of the New Testament.
"For ?no man,? he says, ?hath seen God at any time,? unless ?the only-begotten Son of God, which is in the bosom of the Father, He hath declared [Him].? -Against Heresies: Book 3, Chap 11 section 6
And about 10 years later around 190 A.D. Clement of Alexandria quoted the same verse of John 1:18, which had this reading in his copy of the New Testament.
"And John the apostle says: ?No man hath seen God at any time. The only-begotten God, who is in the bosom of the Father, He hath declared Him,? -The Stromata: book 5, Chap 12
and about 40 years later about 230, Origen quoted from the same verse of John 1:18, which had this reading in his copy of the New Testament.
?No man hath seen God at any time; the only-begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, He hath declared Him.? -Against Celsus: book 2 Chap 71
Shlama,
Chuck