09-04-2012, 07:50 PM
I don't think so, but I'm not entirely sure. It may or may not be another belief the RCC upholds, but I do know that such a statement was once used to explain John 9:1-2:
"9 As he went along, he saw a man blind from birth. 2 His disciples asked him, ?Rabbi, who sinned, this man or his parents, that he was born blind??
Some attempt to explain what the disciples asked Jesus by stating that a child is able to "sin in the womb", and thus, can be "born blind." While others, Origen, for example - a beloved 2nd-century Saint that was "de-sainted" in about 500 BC, I believe - attributed such a statement to reincarnation.
So if the CoE doesn't adhere to such a teaching - either to Original Sin or the ability to sin in the womb, then what exactly is their take on John 9? How can a child be born blind?
"9 As he went along, he saw a man blind from birth. 2 His disciples asked him, ?Rabbi, who sinned, this man or his parents, that he was born blind??
Some attempt to explain what the disciples asked Jesus by stating that a child is able to "sin in the womb", and thus, can be "born blind." While others, Origen, for example - a beloved 2nd-century Saint that was "de-sainted" in about 500 BC, I believe - attributed such a statement to reincarnation.
So if the CoE doesn't adhere to such a teaching - either to Original Sin or the ability to sin in the womb, then what exactly is their take on John 9? How can a child be born blind?