07-13-2012, 10:19 PM
First, did Zorba mistranslate aramaic word 'satana'?
The aramaic word 'satana' is rendered as Greek 'diabolos' (slanderer / false accuser, devil) in the following verses:
Second, Zorba may have blown it in Acts 10:38. Aramaic word 'by$)' (evil, wrong) is rendered as 'diabolou' (devil, slanderer, false accuser)
Third, Luke 8:12 aramaic word 'b(ldbb)' (enemy, adversary) is rendered as 'diabolos' (devil, slanderer, false accuser)
Otherwise in the NT (W5 not included) -- Zorba was consistent to translate 'satana' into Satan and he did well to translate the aramaic words for 'accuser'.
So, could this hurt Aramaic Primacy or help it?
**EDIT**
(Seems like Zorba may have done some dynamic equivalence, probably because Greek audience may have not known who Satan is.)
-DrawCloser
The aramaic word 'satana' is rendered as Greek 'diabolos' (slanderer / false accuser, devil) in the following verses:
Quote:Matthew 13:39
Luke 4:5
John 6:70, John 13:2
1 Timothy 3:6-7
2 Tim. 2:26
Hebrews 2:14
James 4:7
1 Peter 5:8
1 John 3:8, 10
Second, Zorba may have blown it in Acts 10:38. Aramaic word 'by$)' (evil, wrong) is rendered as 'diabolou' (devil, slanderer, false accuser)
Third, Luke 8:12 aramaic word 'b(ldbb)' (enemy, adversary) is rendered as 'diabolos' (devil, slanderer, false accuser)
Otherwise in the NT (W5 not included) -- Zorba was consistent to translate 'satana' into Satan and he did well to translate the aramaic words for 'accuser'.
So, could this hurt Aramaic Primacy or help it?
**EDIT**
(Seems like Zorba may have done some dynamic equivalence, probably because Greek audience may have not known who Satan is.)
-DrawCloser