2. Tess 2 and specifically question about verse 7 in context

[Stephen Silver]

Luc Lefebvre wrote:

As far as I understand it, in the Semitic mind, iniquity is always a reference to transgression of Torah. I believe that when carried over into Greek, this had to be clarified for the audience so that the term was not left open to interpretation.

Torah means Torah.
Iniquity means Iniquity.

Vulgate text here agrees with Peshitta:
2Thessalonians 2:7 - Nam mysterium iam operatur iniquitatis: tantum ut qui tenet nunc, teneat, donec de medio fiat.

Greek text says "lawlessness" which does not make sense
since Christians are freed through the body of Christ from observing Torah.

Shlama Akhi Ivan:
In Acts 15 (Jerusalem Council) it was decidd by the Rukha d'Kadusha in full agreement with those Apostles present that there were four stipulations that were to be imposed upon Gentiles who have found Christ as Saviour. These four are found in Acts 15:20, 28-29.

1) but that we should write to them to abstain from things polluted by idols,
2) from sexual imorality,
3) from things strangled,
4) and from blood.

This is the Law of Moses (Torah) Acts 15:21)

Moreover, we must be mindful, in my opinion to Matthew 5:17-19. The Law of Moses is the written description of all sin and iniquity, both intentional and unintentional. The four stipulations above, in my understanding represent the minimum requirements so as to maintain fellowship between Jews and Gentiles. There is no place in the New Testament where Jews were ever loosed from the Law of Moses. (Matthew 5:17-19) Jesus, in his sermon in Matthew 5 is specifically to the Jews who were raised in the Law of Moses, not the stipulations of the Pharisees, though much of the Pharisaic teaching matched that of Jesus as well as Paul. As I understand these portions of scripture, the Gentiles were not subject to the full burden of the Law, only those laws that were ordained by the Rukha d'Kadusha, in the presence of the Apostles at the Jerusalem Council.

Shlama,
Stephen