02-24-2012, 11:04 PM
Hi Jeremy,
Do you think that what is described as divided tongues of fire in Acts 2, which is said to have appeard over those who were gathered in the upper room, has anything to do with the instance of the gift of spiritual languages, given by unction of the Spirit being termed "tongues"...either in ancient times, or modern times? I think it might be a reason...other than the fact, that the old English translations render the Greek word that way. There seems to be a correlation to me. I'll have to check on the ancient Church Father's like Justin, Ireneaus, and Tertullian, who speak of this gift in their generation of the mid 2nd to early 3rd century. I'll check to see if they refer to this utterance gift in the same way as it is today among those who claim to have this gift.
Shlama,
Chuck
Do you think that what is described as divided tongues of fire in Acts 2, which is said to have appeard over those who were gathered in the upper room, has anything to do with the instance of the gift of spiritual languages, given by unction of the Spirit being termed "tongues"...either in ancient times, or modern times? I think it might be a reason...other than the fact, that the old English translations render the Greek word that way. There seems to be a correlation to me. I'll have to check on the ancient Church Father's like Justin, Ireneaus, and Tertullian, who speak of this gift in their generation of the mid 2nd to early 3rd century. I'll check to see if they refer to this utterance gift in the same way as it is today among those who claim to have this gift.
Shlama,
Chuck