Romans 8:24

[gbausc]

Hello Metal1633,

Paul listed Alexandrinus , an early 5th century Greek uncial as having the dechomai reading. The Coptic mss. all seem to have it as well . These are 3rd and 4th century. Of course Aramaic "[font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]NnykS[/font] could come from the Greek word ,"elpizei", if one were to translate Greek to Aramaic. Where did Codex A and the Coptic Mss. get "dechomai", or "to wait" ? That is the question. This along with dozens of other examples, show that the Aramaic can explain the Greek variants , and the Greek mss. as translations of Aramaic.

You cannot do the converse. The Aramaic Peshitta does not even have variant readings . One would expects hundreds of them if it were translated from Greek mss. It does not conform to one particular Greek type. How could it be a translation of one ? Why are there no variants in this "translation" ?

Look for them; you will find no more than two or three in the entire NT worth calling a variant reading, using Eastern or Western mss. !

Damn those Aramaic scribes ! How could they be so accurate and meticulous over their "translated" mss. ? And in God's name, why ?

Old schools die hard. This Greek pimacy school is on the way out, however, because it is finally being challenged and it has no answers.
Kind of like Ptolomy's astronomy which held the field for 1500 years, until Galileo , Copernicus , Kepler challenged it and blew it to pieces.

Blessings,

Dave B