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If I recall correctly, John tended to write in this manner, often referring to the Pharisees as "the Y'hudaeans," or as rendered today "the Jews."
Though this was clearly not meant to be derogatory in manner, it is taken by anti-missionaries, skeptics, and perhaps even some in faith-communities, in such a way.
So we have to address these references in a similar manner. Perhaps we can understand his words here as saying, "the feasts kept by the house of Y'hudah."
Rather than being a feast belonging to the people of Y'hudah, it's a feast guarded by the people of Y'hudah.

We also see Yeshua making some remarks regarding the Instruction also only in the book of Yohanan:
  • Jhn 8:17 It is also written in your law, that the testimony of two men is true.
  • Jhn 10:34 Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?
The former is referring to Torah proper, the latter to the Psalms. What do you make of him referring to the Torah of YHWH "your Law'" (i.e. "the Law of the Jews")?

Messages In This Thread
FEASTS OF THE JEWS? - by carvston - 05-03-2011, 10:18 AM
Re: FEASTS OF THE JEWS? - by Aaron S - 05-03-2011, 05:52 PM
Re: FEASTS OF THE JEWS? - by rramlow - 05-03-2011, 07:34 PM
Re: FEASTS OF THE JEWS? - by Rabitomfarhi - 07-24-2012, 04:47 PM

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