01-08-2011, 04:26 AM
The one in Matthew 13:27 is (moreh), which is grammatically "singular construct". This is usually best rendered as "the-lord-of", or in the case of 13:27: "the-lord-of the-house".
In Matthew 22: 43 & 45 (mor'yah) is used in reference to David's "my lord", not in reference to YHWH. In at least two other instances, Yeshua (Jesus) is referred to as (mor'yah). Grammatically, (morayah) would logically be the plural of (mor'yah), and it is clearly non-YHWH specific.
Oddly, whether or not (mor'yah) is anthing more than "the lord", depends upon what (morah) is. For example, if (mor'yah) is simply "the lord", then (morah) would have to be the absolute form "lord". But is it?
In Matthew 22: 43 & 45 (mor'yah) is used in reference to David's "my lord", not in reference to YHWH. In at least two other instances, Yeshua (Jesus) is referred to as (mor'yah). Grammatically, (morayah) would logically be the plural of (mor'yah), and it is clearly non-YHWH specific.
Oddly, whether or not (mor'yah) is anthing more than "the lord", depends upon what (morah) is. For example, if (mor'yah) is simply "the lord", then (morah) would have to be the absolute form "lord". But is it?