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Luke 3:36

If Luke would have used an LXX this would not prove that he wrote his gospels in Greek <!-- sSmile --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="Smile" title="Smile" /><!-- sSmile -->

I'd say that the Greek variants and mistranslations in the case from an Aramaic source prove a point.

This is G.D. Bauschers comment.
Quote:* All Greek texts support ?Qainan? as father of Shalah,
though all Hebrew mss. as well as Aramaic O.T. mss. seem
to lack this reading in Genesis 11:12 and in 1 Chronicles
1:18 . Only The LXX has this reading in Gen. 11:12. The
LXX is lacking the verse of 1 Chronicles 1:18. The
?Arphakshar?reading here agrees with The Peshitta O.T.
spelling of this name in every place in which it is found.
Hebrew mss. have ?Arphakshad? , as does The LXX and
all Greek mss. of Luke 3:36. This is evidence that The
Peshitta NT did not follow Hebrew O.T. mss. or The LXX or
The Greek NT, but probably followed The Peshitta O.T. text
(or vice versa) for these names

Messages In This Thread
Luke 3:36 - by Andrej - 01-03-2011, 04:22 AM
Re: Luke 3:36 - by distazo - 01-03-2011, 07:16 AM
Re: Luke 3:36 - by Aaron S - 01-03-2011, 10:40 PM

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