Armaya or Aramaya?

[distazo]

so, can we say that the difference between the two words is something from later centuries, not from the first centiry?

if the peshitta is a transfer from Palastinian Aramaic to Odessa, the vowels would be added later.
So, in the begin, there would not be two different words for 'Aramean'? Of course, this is an assumption from me.

Regards