11-29-2010, 01:07 AM
Greetings son_of_lite,
My focus primarily is on the Peshitta, so I will not try to comment on the Greek. But in the parallel account of Mark 5:23, the Peshitta reads:
"My-daughter badly rendered, come, put thy-hand upon-her; and-she-to-be-cured, and she-to-live."
So based on Mark's account, there is little doubt that she was considered alive at the beginning. Thus, there is ample reason to believe that the "perfect" verb used by Matthew is best translated as, "My-daughter, such-now she-dies, ..."
It seems unlikely to me that Matthew, vowel pointings, or linguistics are causing the confusion, but instead our perception of the "perfect" verb that is confused. It is not by default a "past tense" verb.
My focus primarily is on the Peshitta, so I will not try to comment on the Greek. But in the parallel account of Mark 5:23, the Peshitta reads:
"My-daughter badly rendered, come, put thy-hand upon-her; and-she-to-be-cured, and she-to-live."
So based on Mark's account, there is little doubt that she was considered alive at the beginning. Thus, there is ample reason to believe that the "perfect" verb used by Matthew is best translated as, "My-daughter, such-now she-dies, ..."
It seems unlikely to me that Matthew, vowel pointings, or linguistics are causing the confusion, but instead our perception of the "perfect" verb that is confused. It is not by default a "past tense" verb.