11-26-2010, 04:36 PM
Yes, I had read the context. It might be past tense, but I was most focused on the (hauhau`) which precedes the "die" verb. Why would the man say, "My-daughter, now she-died, ..." instead of "My-daughter, now she-dies, ..."
The Aramaic perfect tense doesn't seem to have an equivalent in English. The closest I think we can come is archaic English, as in "she-dieth", which the ear can more easily deduce as both past and present, even future as need be.
The Aramaic perfect tense doesn't seem to have an equivalent in English. The closest I think we can come is archaic English, as in "she-dieth", which the ear can more easily deduce as both past and present, even future as need be.