05-05-2011, 01:02 AM
rramlow Wrote:Maybe, but if so, how did it get to be equivalent? I would like to know more about the etymology, and I also have been wanting to learn hebrew and aramaic, I just don't have the money for the books and software to do it right.onebiblestudent Wrote:Hello everyone, I'm not sure where would be the best place to post this.I am not a Hebrew scholar yet (having postponed Hebrew to start learning Aramaic).
My question is, why do we say YHVH/Yahweh, when in Ex. 3:14 Moses basically asks what is your name, and He says Ehyeh Asher Ehyeh/I AM THAT I AM.... That's God's own self-designation, so then why don't we use that and where did YHVH come from?
If someone could elaborate on this or direct me to some info, I would much appreciate it.
However, I have one guess for you. I would expect the statement you reference to be in "1st person". To use it except as an obvious quote of the Maker would therefore be applying it to oneself, if even unwittingly. At least until educated otherwise, I believe "YHWH" to be equivalent to the Ex. 3:14 statement but in "3rd person"...
Sort of like saying "He" instead of "I".
And related to this, here's an interesting article about the pronunciation of the Tetragrammaton:
http://www.ancient-hebrew.org/docs/1_faq...mchugh.pdf
I don't know how much merit it has cause I don't know hebrew.
(So is there a better thread to post this question? Or should I start a new one?)