06-28-2010, 07:20 PM
Thanks Aaron.
Its really interesting.
But what about a few chapters later, in Acts 13 we have the Greek, Bar-Jesus and the Aramaic Bar-Shuma.
Do you know about the example about the name change of Moses I am talking about, It might be in numbers?
If so then we have a pattern of practice. I can easily accept that seymon was not carried over into the Greek. But now that there are two examples of names which are sacred that are different in Greek and Aramaic. If this was done in the Torah could it have been a practice continued in the Semetic Church?
Its tricky, because you often see changes made intentionally where they can be made by changing just one or two letters. You see this often in the Tanakh according to Ginsburg and some of the Massorah.
At the same time there are three possibilities.
1.The transition from one Aramaic script to another caused the change in the Aramaic, the Greek translation however got it correct. (I made a DSS example but cannot upload it)
2.The same, but the Peshitta got it correct and the Greek erred.
3.The name was intentionally changed in the Aramaic like some of the times they were changed in the Tanakh (I have no idea if there can be any connection between the traditions or not)
We can say this is more likely, that the Greek erred because he was not so proficient in Aramaic, etc, but then it gets too complicated for me to visualize it as there are so many factors. I really cannot venture any further with the knowledge I have and I think 3, though it looks the simplest, is not the best choice because it is the most speculative.
We have many examples where the Greek seems to have made a mistake in copying the Aramaic however.
Your thoughts Akhi?
Its really interesting.
But what about a few chapters later, in Acts 13 we have the Greek, Bar-Jesus and the Aramaic Bar-Shuma.
Do you know about the example about the name change of Moses I am talking about, It might be in numbers?
If so then we have a pattern of practice. I can easily accept that seymon was not carried over into the Greek. But now that there are two examples of names which are sacred that are different in Greek and Aramaic. If this was done in the Torah could it have been a practice continued in the Semetic Church?
Its tricky, because you often see changes made intentionally where they can be made by changing just one or two letters. You see this often in the Tanakh according to Ginsburg and some of the Massorah.
At the same time there are three possibilities.
1.The transition from one Aramaic script to another caused the change in the Aramaic, the Greek translation however got it correct. (I made a DSS example but cannot upload it)
2.The same, but the Peshitta got it correct and the Greek erred.
3.The name was intentionally changed in the Aramaic like some of the times they were changed in the Tanakh (I have no idea if there can be any connection between the traditions or not)
We can say this is more likely, that the Greek erred because he was not so proficient in Aramaic, etc, but then it gets too complicated for me to visualize it as there are so many factors. I really cannot venture any further with the knowledge I have and I think 3, though it looks the simplest, is not the best choice because it is the most speculative.
We have many examples where the Greek seems to have made a mistake in copying the Aramaic however.
Your thoughts Akhi?