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About Luke 16:19-31 II century interpolation
#47
Innoire Wrote:
Quote:You are paying far too much attention to history and not enough to linguistics. Some of the books you have assigned to Greek (such as Revelation, John, and Mark) have higher concentrations of semiticisms than some of the ones you assign to Hebrew (Hebrews and Matthew, especially).

Yes, but becouse the autors was hebrews <!-- sSmile --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="Smile" title="Smile" /><!-- sSmile -->

Well, I agree that the Revelation was told to John, in his native language, but, becouse his mission was for greeks, I am not imagine, that he wrote to them in his native language.
He spent a couple of years among greeks, and he knows thear language.
I don't think Revelation was written for a pagan Greek audience. It would have been incomprehensible to them. It might possibly could have been for a Hellenized Jewish audience, but I have my doubts even about that.
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Re: About Luke 16:19-31 II century interpolation - by Dawid - 05-20-2010, 07:07 PM

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