Living Soul

[Andrej]

Something more on a figurative level, where one has to put to death his "worldly" life in order to gain his "spiritual" life. Yet, there is no distinction in the verse between "worldly" life and "spiritual" life; both are written as nephesh.

Does there really have to be a literal distinction? i always understood the verse in this manner, and i think there is quite a number of verses that change from natural to spiritual (or vv) without any indication. The only thing i can think of at the moment is:
Mar 8:17-18 And when Jesus knew it, he saith unto them, Why reason ye, because ye have no bread? perceive ye not yet, neither understand? have ye your heart yet hardened? Having eyes, see ye not? and having ears, hear ye not? and do ye not remember?
Eze 12:2 Son of man, thou dwellest in the midst of a rebellious house, which have eyes to see, and see not; they have ears to hear, and hear not: for they are a rebellious house.
Jer 5:21 Hear now this, O foolish people, and without understanding; which have eyes, and see not; which have ears, and hear not:
Deu 29:3-4 The great temptations which thine eyes have seen, the signs, and those great miracles: Yet the LORD hath not given you an heart to perceive, and eyes to see, and ears to hear, unto this day.

Now, this may not even be a good example, but i am sure there are tons of others (just nothing coming to mind,as i never wondered). i guess one could argue the implied transition was from sensory input to mental assimilation rather than natural to spiritual perception, however, the important part is that there is a clear underlying change of meaning, which the context undeniably forces us to accept.