1 Corinthians 10:11

[judge]

Here is what Dave Bauscher's translation has ("The Original Aramaic New Testament in Plain English", Lulu Publishing 2009):

11. But all these things that occurred to them were for our example and it
was written for our admonition, for their end of the world has come
upon us. (I believe Paul was writing of the destruction of the nation of Israel. He was writing specifically to the Jewish
believers, according to verse 1. Even as the Israelites were destroyed in the wilderness of Sin, so the nation under Rome
would be destroyed because of sin. He was not speaking of the absolute end of the world for all people. )

Thanks Otto. I think this explanation makes sense. I dont see it as racist. The author of hebrews makes a similar analogy. I had wondered about this verse where in English translations it ususlly reads ages plural in contradistinction to every other similar passges in the NT where we see the reading age (singular).
Reading it always as age (in english) makes for a more consistent NT IMHO, particularly to me as one seeing all eschatology as already fulfilled.
Anyway this has all been helpful to me anyway, as I was involved in another discussion around these things. So thanks to everyone who helped. <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="" title="Smile" /><!-- s -->