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Concerning the ending of Mark's Gospel

I???m not sure that the Septuagint has a Byznatine text type like the NT, unless I am un-informed. There was always just one Septuagint text I think, while there were other Greek OT translations made, I don't think that there was a separate text type tradition like there is in the Greek NT.

And even in the Greek NT, until the 1880's when W&H took to edit the NT based on the new found Alexandrian texts, there was always in English, the Greek as found in the Byzantine Text.

So this "critical text" is a relatively new development, based on some missing verses not found in a handful of manuscripts out of thousands of the others.

How much is missing? Try about 30 whole verses through out the NT and a total word count that would add up to the whole books of 1st & 2nd Peter.

If interested below are a few links...the 1st shows what is not present in some new English NT's based upon the Westcot & Hort "Alexandrian text". And no, (I'm not a KJV only nut) it???s just the only site I have found that shows this in an easy format, and the 2nd is an English translation straight from the Siniaticus.

Some say that there is no doctrine destroyed if one was to use only the Alexandrian text type, but there is the fact that in both Matt 17:21 which is missing in Siniaticus, and Mark 9:29, which lacks the rest of the verse, where it says "...and fasting" at the end, it seems to me that if this statement is true and that Messiah declared this, then no one would be fasting in this instance, just praying, if all they knew as Scripture was this "critical text".

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Re: Concerning the ending of Mark's Gospel - by Thirdwoe - 04-09-2009, 01:37 AM

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