12-31-2008, 06:48 PM
I stumbled across an apparent variance between Greek and Aramaic for Colossians 1:16 and wondered if anyone could clear it up for me...
The Greek verse appears to end with something to the effect of: "everything was created through him and FOR him" (the English translations seem to all use this same general phrasing)... However, when looking at the Peshitta text, the Aramaic apparently reads more to the effect of "all things by his hand and through him were created" (Etheridge). The Aramaic here appears to totally leave off the concept that all things were created FOR Him which seems very direct in the Greek text (from a non Greek scholar relying on multiple English translations etc.).
Any thoughts on this variation between texts would be most appreciated.
Shlama,
-b
The Greek verse appears to end with something to the effect of: "everything was created through him and FOR him" (the English translations seem to all use this same general phrasing)... However, when looking at the Peshitta text, the Aramaic apparently reads more to the effect of "all things by his hand and through him were created" (Etheridge). The Aramaic here appears to totally leave off the concept that all things were created FOR Him which seems very direct in the Greek text (from a non Greek scholar relying on multiple English translations etc.).
Any thoughts on this variation between texts would be most appreciated.
Shlama,
-b