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THE ORIGINAL LANGUAGE OF NT WAS GREEK
#4
Sorry for resurrecting such an old thread; but it's rather short anyways.

It would appear that the interpretation of the name Bar-nava is given here to clarify what is meant by [font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]0bn[/font], since its root may not be immediately apparent, that is [font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]0yb[/font] [b'ya] (derived to [font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]00ywb[/font]) as opposed to [font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]0bn[/font] [n'va].

Clearly, if writing originating from Aramaic, he could have easily left out the "interpretation" of [font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]rb[/font] [bar] as [font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]0rb[/font] [b'ra] (as opposed to the given, fully-qualified reading), but perhaps it was included for simplicity, completeness, or a smoother reading.

Anyone have thoughts or insights on this one?
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Re: THE ORIGINAL LANGUAGE OF NT WAS GREEK - by Aaron S - 12-20-2011, 06:01 AM

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