01-05-2005, 01:43 PM
In I Tim 3:2 it says "A BISHOP THEN MUST BE BLAMELESS, THE
HUSBAND OF ONE WIFE...."
In translating from the Greek, "MIAS GUNAIKOS ANDRA" there are apparently two ways to understand this. Does it mean the husband of only one wife at a time, or does it stipulate that a bishop can only have one wife during his lifetime. So if he was married and his wife died, he would be prohibited from ever marrying again.
Does the Aramaic make a clear understanding of this passage?
Ga
HUSBAND OF ONE WIFE...."
In translating from the Greek, "MIAS GUNAIKOS ANDRA" there are apparently two ways to understand this. Does it mean the husband of only one wife at a time, or does it stipulate that a bishop can only have one wife during his lifetime. So if he was married and his wife died, he would be prohibited from ever marrying again.
Does the Aramaic make a clear understanding of this passage?
Ga