Um....are we sure Maryah always = LORD?

[Jerry]

Matthew 22:43-45 is no issue for me, even if it uses Marya for LORD and Lord. After all, that's the message. The Lord is Jesus, Jesus is Marya, Marya is the LORD. Do you say is is clearly non-YHWH specific because of grammatical / linguistic reasons, or because you think the context makes a distinction between LORD and Lord?

For sure, YHWH, David's "my lord", and Yeshua are theologically interchangeable. So yes, my argument is that the verse makes no linguistic sense if one uses a specific designate for (marya), such as "Mar-Yah" in those 3 verses.