02-13-2005, 04:16 PM
Greetings all,
The anarthrous (without def. article) Greek noun occurs thousands of time in the Greek NT. The rule is that it is supposed to emphasize the quality of the person , place or thing (without the article) rather than the identity of the person, place or thing. That does not mean that "Theos" is not identifying "The God" , when it is anarthrous, but it emphasizes the nature of Deity.
Be that as it may, John 1 uses the anarthrous Theos in verses 1, 6, ,12,13, & 18 , and the NWT of Jehovah's Witnesses translates all as "God" , except in v.1 . Clearly an inconsistency that reflects their bias.
The anarthrous "Theos" is used 233 times in the Byzantine Greek NT. Many times it refers to God the Father . Only two times does it refer to the pagan notion of "a god", which is clearly explained by the context (See Acts 12:22,& 28:6).
The Aramaic "Elaha" is practically identical with the Hebrew "Elohim". The LXX Greek in Genesis through 2 Chronicles uses the anarthrous "Theos" 240 times; The Hebrew text has "Elohim" 198 times in those places. The ASV translates four of these "a god", referring to a pagan deity.
Where does a Christian apostle ever refer to the true Deity
as if he were referring to a heathen idol ? If the cults were correct, then Jesus would be an idol, since there can be only the one true God.
John one , verses 1-4 & verses 10-14 make it clear that Jesus The Messiah is the true God (see also 1 John 5:20).
The Peshitta has proofs that the Greek does not. They consist in the Aramaic word "Marya" , the Aramaic word for "Yahweh". Marya is used 32 times for Jesus ("Yeshua' in Aramaic") throughout the NT. Jesus Himself used it to define the Messiah in Matthew 22:41-45 , in His quotation of Psalm 110. According to our Lord, David called The Messiah "Marya", which is "Yahweh" - The Lord God.
Paul's interlinear is the best in this regard, since He has "The LORD" in caps, as it should be, to designate "Yahweh", as the English translations of the OT do to translate the sacred Name.
Have a look at my article on this called "Summary of Proofs " and see point # 12at my Peshitta web site, shown at the bottom of this post.
Many blessings,
Dave Bauscher
The anarthrous (without def. article) Greek noun occurs thousands of time in the Greek NT. The rule is that it is supposed to emphasize the quality of the person , place or thing (without the article) rather than the identity of the person, place or thing. That does not mean that "Theos" is not identifying "The God" , when it is anarthrous, but it emphasizes the nature of Deity.
Be that as it may, John 1 uses the anarthrous Theos in verses 1, 6, ,12,13, & 18 , and the NWT of Jehovah's Witnesses translates all as "God" , except in v.1 . Clearly an inconsistency that reflects their bias.
The anarthrous "Theos" is used 233 times in the Byzantine Greek NT. Many times it refers to God the Father . Only two times does it refer to the pagan notion of "a god", which is clearly explained by the context (See Acts 12:22,& 28:6).
The Aramaic "Elaha" is practically identical with the Hebrew "Elohim". The LXX Greek in Genesis through 2 Chronicles uses the anarthrous "Theos" 240 times; The Hebrew text has "Elohim" 198 times in those places. The ASV translates four of these "a god", referring to a pagan deity.
Where does a Christian apostle ever refer to the true Deity
as if he were referring to a heathen idol ? If the cults were correct, then Jesus would be an idol, since there can be only the one true God.
John one , verses 1-4 & verses 10-14 make it clear that Jesus The Messiah is the true God (see also 1 John 5:20).
The Peshitta has proofs that the Greek does not. They consist in the Aramaic word "Marya" , the Aramaic word for "Yahweh". Marya is used 32 times for Jesus ("Yeshua' in Aramaic") throughout the NT. Jesus Himself used it to define the Messiah in Matthew 22:41-45 , in His quotation of Psalm 110. According to our Lord, David called The Messiah "Marya", which is "Yahweh" - The Lord God.
Paul's interlinear is the best in this regard, since He has "The LORD" in caps, as it should be, to designate "Yahweh", as the English translations of the OT do to translate the sacred Name.
Have a look at my article on this called "Summary of Proofs " and see point # 12at my Peshitta web site, shown at the bottom of this post.
Many blessings,
Dave Bauscher
Get my NT translations, books & articles at :
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I also have articles at BibleCodeDigest.com
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="https://aramaicnt.net">https://aramaicnt.net</a><!-- m --> and Lulu.com
I also have articles at BibleCodeDigest.com