use of OS by ancient Aramaic-speaking Christians

[Paul Younan]

Western or not, saying an eastern translated text was Tatian's Diatesseron when the evidence overwhelming proves that there was no way that this peshitta harmony could have ever Tatian's Diatesseron is unreasonable and biased, Paul.

What evidence? Ephraem's commentary could have easily been vulgarized to agree with the western text.

The fact of the matter is that we no longer have Tatian, the Assyrian's, Diatesseron.

We only have witnesses. The one DIRECT translation of it, that says so RIGHT ON THE MANUSCRIPT ITSELF, reads like a harmony of the Peshitta Gospels.

Which is exactly what Tatian's Diatesseron was.

What evidence are you talking about? Armenian and Latin harmonies?

I'm talking about an ARABIC translation directly from an ARAMAIC source. It even has grammatical errors in the Arabic that point to an Aramaic source.

This is a no-win situation for the Old Scratch, Akhi. Total scientific evidence and no "bias".