09-19-2014, 12:55 AM
Though it is a translation, you will find that the Aramaic OT, which was translated from a Hebrew text around 1000 years earlier than the present Masoretic Hebrew text form of the 1000 A.D. we can look at today, is more accurate in a number of places such as where the Masoretic scribes changed some words out, like the tetragramaton.
I haven't done any close looking at the quotations in the New Testament books, to see if they might line up more with how it is worded in the Aramaic, Greek, or Hebrew OT, or neither, as they sometimes give a paraphrase, or their translation, rather than a straight quote direct from any source text.
If anyone knows of a comparative work showing the agreements, I would love to know about it.
I haven't done any close looking at the quotations in the New Testament books, to see if they might line up more with how it is worded in the Aramaic, Greek, or Hebrew OT, or neither, as they sometimes give a paraphrase, or their translation, rather than a straight quote direct from any source text.
If anyone knows of a comparative work showing the agreements, I would love to know about it.