Refutation to Aramaic primacists

[ScorpioSniper2]

So, why would there be so many Semitic language idioms in the New Testament writings if they were written to Greek speaking people? I think that's what a previous post you mocked was trying to say. You seem very desperate to prove us wrong but you are failing in your quest. I'm not attempting to disprove Greek primacy right now, I am refuting your attempt to refute us. I would say that we have dome quite well!