03-25-2014, 06:23 AM
Also, look at vs 8 there in Philippians chapter 1. The Greek text has added the "all" again, where it is not at all needed in context, as it is still speaking of the same "you all" in vs 6. Helper words...would have been in italics if it were done that way back in the 1st century. But, again, nothing is wrong either way, nothing is changed or confused with or without the "all" being present or not.
According to your thinking though, you say that the Greek scribe has to be really drunk to add these two "all"s to the text.
Not at all. <!-- s
--><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="" title="Smile" /><!-- s --> Rather, this is a hallmark of translations actually, you should know, you have been reading them all your life.
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According to your thinking though, you say that the Greek scribe has to be really drunk to add these two "all"s to the text.
Not at all. <!-- s
--><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="" title="Smile" /><!-- s --> Rather, this is a hallmark of translations actually, you should know, you have been reading them all your life..