12-09-2013, 02:31 AM
wow - I wrote this before seeing the reply of Shamasha Paul !
I do not know if there are testimonies to use of "awnglwion" in the times of Jesus, beyond NT records, but a question, if I may:
1/ If "awnglwion" was not preserved in the Peshitta (but sbrta was used in all paces where you find euangelion on the Greek side), would that make the case for Peshitta Primacy stronger or weaker ?
2/ Was the word "good news" used by Jesus ? If yes, which one would he be using, the "hellenized" versions or sbrta ? How does Mark 1 read ? If Peshitta is a translation why the translator of Mark's gospel used two different words for the same Greek one, in a span of (only) a chapter?
I do not know if there are testimonies to use of "awnglwion" in the times of Jesus, beyond NT records, but a question, if I may:
1/ If "awnglwion" was not preserved in the Peshitta (but sbrta was used in all paces where you find euangelion on the Greek side), would that make the case for Peshitta Primacy stronger or weaker ?
2/ Was the word "good news" used by Jesus ? If yes, which one would he be using, the "hellenized" versions or sbrta ? How does Mark 1 read ? If Peshitta is a translation why the translator of Mark's gospel used two different words for the same Greek one, in a span of (only) a chapter?