09-14-2003, 08:20 PM
It would be interesting to find out if "continuous action verbs" existed in Greek prior to translations from Semitic languages (i.e., the LXX and the NT <!-- s
--><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/happy.gif" alt="" title="Happy" /><!-- s --> )
If not, then there definitely would be a case for this being a marker of translation from a Semitic language.
--><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/happy.gif" alt="" title="Happy" /><!-- s --> )If not, then there definitely would be a case for this being a marker of translation from a Semitic language.
+Shamasha Paul bar-Shimun de'Beth-Younan
![[Image: sig.jpg]](http://www.peshitta.org/images/sig.jpg)