Is the Greek New Testament willfully corrupted

[Burning one]

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Ahhh...I forgot that, Jeremy!...but, did remember the "deeds of disobedience" verse, which I think was my main focus at the time.

So, this looks like a very early mistranslation from the Aramaic text into Greek then.

And since the two texts I'm looking at of The Diatessaron are both English translations from the Arabic and Latin translations of The Aramaic text...perhaps the Arabic and Latin words can also be translated into English both ways? If not, I'm wondering if the Arabic translator of the Aramaic Diatessaron text, which the Latin and Arabic texts came from, might have gotten it wrong.

Clearly The Diatessaron's text is a mix of Matt 11:19 (1st part) and Luke 7:35 2nd part, because it has the word for "all" from Luke's account, where the parallel passage in Matt lacks the "all" word in the Aramaic text.

Any other explanation, or idea how this can be?

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Shlama akhi,

yeah, the "deeds of disobedience" was the focus, that was why i reminded you of my sidebar reasoning! <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/wink1.gif" alt="" title="Wink" /><!-- s -->

when it comes to the Diatessaron, i have not looked at the Latin or Arabic versions to know what the reading is, so i'm no help there right now. but you can clearly see how the Greek arrived at its take on the passage, for sure!


Chayim b'Moshiach,
Jeremy