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2 Peter 3:10

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2 Peter 3:10
Thirdwoe Offline
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#4
03-20-2013, 06:39 AM
Can this be explained any other way, besides it being a mistranslation of an Aramaic word? And if not, is there any proof this strong showing it must have 1st been written in Greek?

Shlama,
Chuck
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Messages In This Thread
2 Peter 3:10 - by distazo - 04-11-2012, 11:28 AM
Re: 2 Peter 3:10 - by visionary - 07-28-2012, 03:11 PM
Re: 2 Peter 3:10 - by bknight - 03-20-2013, 04:02 AM
Re: 2 Peter 3:10 - by Thirdwoe - 03-20-2013, 06:39 AM
Re: 2 Peter 3:10 - by bknight - 03-20-2013, 08:53 AM
Re: 2 Peter 3:10 - by Paul Younan - 03-20-2013, 04:29 PM
Re: 2 Peter 3:10 - by bknight - 03-24-2013, 01:35 PM

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