03-20-2013, 04:02 AM
I'm surprised this hasn't gotten more attention. It seems to me that the difference between the greek and aramaic texts in this case could only have come about if the former were translated from the latter -- as opposed to the other way around which is the predominant theory even among peshitta primacists. A good translator wouldn't substitute a euphemism with an unrelated meaning for a word that is clear in the "original" greek. Even a particularly bad translator wouldn't have substituted "out of the silence" for "loudly." A different meaning whether interpreted figuratively or literally.
2 Peter being a western book and yet having such a strong hint that it too was originally penned in aramaic should lead us to further examination of Jude and John's works as well.
2 Peter being a western book and yet having such a strong hint that it too was originally penned in aramaic should lead us to further examination of Jude and John's works as well.