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Is the Greek New Testament willfully corrupted
#3
Shlama to all,

As ar as corruption is concerned, we get a double-dose of trouble in Colossians 3:11. Not only does "Greek" get substituted for "Aramaean" but "Scythian" is substituted for "Greek" !!!!! <!-- s:rockedover: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/rockdover.gif" alt=":rockedover:" title="Rocked Over" /><!-- s:rockedover: -->
I'll give Victor Alexander's translation and comments......

11. It does not matter whether Jew or Aramaean,* circumcised or uncircumcised, Greek or barbarian,* a slave or the son of the free; except for all and for every human being, He is the Christ.

*3:11.1 "Jew or Aramaean" is correct, not "Jew or Greek" as is in Western translations. Jews and Aramaeans were culturally similar. They shared the same language for one thing. Customs were the same, etc.
*3:11.2 In this passage occurs a great distortion in Western translations. The name "Scythian" is substituted for "Greek." "Scythians" is a total fabrication. There was no reference to Scythians in the context of early Christianity anywhere in Scriptures or in the lands where Christianity was preached. "Greeks and barbarians" is correct, referring to the fact that both groups came from polytheism and paganism.

Shlama w'Burkate, Bro. Larry
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Re: Is the Greek New Testament willfully corrupted - by LawrenceRaymond - 11-12-2012, 09:50 PM

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