06-01-2012, 10:23 PM
Shlama,
Thank you for this post! I was just reading 1 Corinthians 14:2 and came to the same conclusions as many of you in this post. I just came to the conclusion Rav Shaul is saying that no one understands what someone is saying in a foreign language except Elohim (for Elohim knows all languages). I was truly blessed to see this post discussing the very same thing.
I was also wondering, however, if anyone POSSIBLY considered that 'spirit' ('ruqha) could be translated here a different way? Perhaps "wind" instead? i.e. was Rav Shaul trying to say:
"For he that speaks in a tongue, speaks not to men, but to Elohim; for no one understands what is said (except Elohim, for Elohim knows all languages); yet into the wind he speaks a mystery.? (This would potentially match 1 Corinthians 14:9- 'You will have been as if you spoke into the air)?
OR, ... he mutters a mystery by his breath?
I am a novice so I am asking to know. I am not familiar with the substitution of the proclictics yet, so i was wondering if this is possible.
I really appreciate the feedback- again, you all really have no idea how much this helps me. Given that 1 Corinthians 14 is taken out of context so much to begin with, why, this could clear up a lot of confusion for men who have become frustrated with their charismatic churches.
Brachot. --Bradley
Thank you for this post! I was just reading 1 Corinthians 14:2 and came to the same conclusions as many of you in this post. I just came to the conclusion Rav Shaul is saying that no one understands what someone is saying in a foreign language except Elohim (for Elohim knows all languages). I was truly blessed to see this post discussing the very same thing.
I was also wondering, however, if anyone POSSIBLY considered that 'spirit' ('ruqha) could be translated here a different way? Perhaps "wind" instead? i.e. was Rav Shaul trying to say:
"For he that speaks in a tongue, speaks not to men, but to Elohim; for no one understands what is said (except Elohim, for Elohim knows all languages); yet into the wind he speaks a mystery.? (This would potentially match 1 Corinthians 14:9- 'You will have been as if you spoke into the air)?
OR, ... he mutters a mystery by his breath?
I am a novice so I am asking to know. I am not familiar with the substitution of the proclictics yet, so i was wondering if this is possible.
I really appreciate the feedback- again, you all really have no idea how much this helps me. Given that 1 Corinthians 14 is taken out of context so much to begin with, why, this could clear up a lot of confusion for men who have become frustrated with their charismatic churches.
Brachot. --Bradley