Your "mistranslations" confirm Greek primacy

[IPOstapyuk]

It's funny that all greek manuscripts contain the same mistranslations.
For example, your "Treasure" for Aramaic Primacy (Acts 8:27) actually prove greek origin of this text. It's not possible that all translators used "gaza" and none used "thesauros".
Another example is Romans 5,7 with greek "mistranslation" - righteous/wicked. ALL translators did the same error ???
All "mistranslations" prove greek primacy, it's so clear

.

This is very smart claim, Sir.

In Acts.8:27 word "gaza" could be a very popular loan word in the initial geographic area or
a little known word and unknown to many and a Greek translator consulted other Greek texts for help.
Guessings can be too many.

As for me, in Rom. 5:7 'the wicked' and 'the good' is logical counterweight.
On the other side the righteous and good has no counterweight at all and
is irrational at all. I do not know why some of them translated as 'the righteous', it could be a lot
of logical guessings.

The main point is that the Gospel originally was preached by Jesus in Hebrew dialect of Aramaic and
the rest of the texts is translations of the original words - meanings. Let us use contextual logic to spot work of the corruptors.